Bridge of Reason

  Should You Believe in The Trinity? is a booklet published in 1989 by the Watchtower Society to challenge Trinitarian doctrine. Always good for an eye-catching book title, Doug came up with Why Should You Believe? Should You Believe in The Trinity? He did a great job of demonstrating the mendacity of the Watchtower Society in their publication. I am in the process of updating and reformatting Doug’s work. You can still find the JW title  on their website. I want to share some of Doug’s work with you, along with a simple example of how Doug more than competently handles the defence they offer when you challenge their selective quoting. When it is republished I will be sure to let you know. Doug writes: ‘ When you show that a particular quote is selective many Jehovah’s Witnesses will say, “Well the writer does say these words and therefore we are not misquoting them.” The answer I give to this is to quote John 3:16 & 17 from the New World Translation, as follows: ‘ For...

  Jehovah's Witnesses struggle with the idea of one God in three person's. Who doesn’t? How do they resolve this to their own satisfaction? They reason: 'The statement “the Word was with God” indicates that two separate persons are discussed in the verse. It is not possible for the Word to be “with God” and at the same time be God Almighty. The context also confirms that the Word is not Almighty God. John 1:18 states that “no man has seen God at any time.” However, people did see the Word, Jesus, for John 1:14 states that “the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory.” Is there a difference between 'God' and 'Almighty God,' as they insist? If 'no man has seen God at any time' how is it possible for Jesus to be seen and be God? Revelation 3:14 I ended my last post without addressing the question, ‘Is the NWT accurate and reliable when it translates Revelation 3:14, 'the beginning of the creation by God'?’ I w...

  Jehovah's Witnesses are known for denying the Deity of Christ. They explain on their website: 'While many Bible translators render the verse this way, others see the need to render it differently. In the original-language text, the two occurrences of “God” (Greek, the·osʹ) at John 1:1 are grammatically different. In the first occurrence, the word “God” is preceded by the Greek definite article, while the article does not appear before the second occurrence. Many scholars note that the absence of the definite article before the second the·osʹ is significant. For example, The Translator’s New Testament says regarding this absence of the article: “In effect it gives an adjectival quality to the second use of Theos (God) so that the phrase means ‘The Word was divine.’” Other scholars and Bible translations point to this same distinction.—See “ John 1:1 From Additional Translations.” Is Jesus 'a god' with a lower case 'g'? Does translating the Greek as 'divi...