Bridge of Reason

  Jehovah's Witnesses struggle with the idea of one God in three person's. Who doesn’t? How do they resolve this to their own satisfaction? They reason: 'The statement “the Word was with God” indicates that two separate persons are discussed in the verse. It is not possible for the Word to be “with God” and at the same time be God Almighty. The context also confirms that the Word is not Almighty God. John 1:18 states that “no man has seen God at any time.” However, people did see the Word, Jesus, for John 1:14 states that “the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory.” Is there a difference between 'God' and 'Almighty God,' as they insist? If 'no man has seen God at any time' how is it possible for Jesus to be seen and be God? Revelation 3:14 I ended my last post without addressing the question, ‘Is the NWT accurate and reliable when it translates Revelation 3:14, 'the beginning of the creation by God'?’ I w...

  Jehovah's Witnesses insist Jesus is a created being, the first to be created, the one who created 'all other things.' Of the opening verses of John's gospel they write : 'The “beginning” referred to in this verse cannot mean “the beginning” of God, because God had no beginning. Jehovah God is “from everlasting to everlasting.” (Psalm 90:1, 2) However, the Word, Jesus Christ, did have a beginning. He is “the beginning of the creation by God.”—Revelation 3:14.' What is 'the beginning' referring to in John 1:1? Did Jesus Christ have a beginning? Is the NWT accurate and reliable when it translates Revelation 3:14, 'the beginning of the creation by God'? In the beginning was [ εἰμ ί ( eimi) , Gk. ‘to be’] the Word – Genesis is in mind here, Jehovah’s Witnesses say as much when they teach God made Jesus and Jesus made ‘all other things,’ as Colossians 2 doesn’t say, but does in their NWT. Note, Jesus ‘was’ in the beginning; he didn’t begin to be....

  Jehovah's Witnesses are known for denying the Deity of Christ. They explain on their website: 'While many Bible translators render the verse this way, others see the need to render it differently. In the original-language text, the two occurrences of “God” (Greek, the·osʹ) at John 1:1 are grammatically different. In the first occurrence, the word “God” is preceded by the Greek definite article, while the article does not appear before the second occurrence. Many scholars note that the absence of the definite article before the second the·osʹ is significant. For example, The Translator’s New Testament says regarding this absence of the article: “In effect it gives an adjectival quality to the second use of Theos (God) so that the phrase means ‘The Word was divine.’” Other scholars and Bible translations point to this same distinction.—See “ John 1:1 From Additional Translations.” Is Jesus 'a god' with a lower case 'g'? Does translating the Greek as 'divi...