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The Watch Tower New Covenant and Kingdom Covenant

 


The Watch Tower Society writes:

'Each year, anointed ones look forward to attending the Memorial as partakers. Why do they appropriately partake of the bread and the wine? To answer that, consider what happened on the final night of Jesusā€™ earthly life. After the Passover meal, Jesus instituted what has come to be known as the Lordā€™s Evening Meal. He passed the bread and the wine to his 11 faithful apostles and told them to eat and drink. Jesus spoke to them about two covenants, or agreements the new covenant and the Kingdom covenant. * (Luke 22:19, 20, 28-30) These covenants opened up the way for those apostles and a limited number of others to become kings and priests in heaven. (Rev. 5:10; 14:1) Only the anointed remnant, * who are in these two covenants, may partake of the bread and the wine at the Memorial.' (Study Watchtower for January 2022)

Did Jesus introduce one new covenant or two? Is there a second 'Kingdom Covenant,' also available only to the 'anointed?' What exactly was Jesus establishing at the last supper, and who does it concern?

This is a great example of the Watch Tower Society saying something the Bible clearly does not. Need I point out that Jesus does not use the phrase ā€˜covenant of the kingdomā€™? What Jesus says about the kingdom is a continuation of what he says about the new covenant, not another covenant. The entry into the new covenant gives entry into the kingdom.


Jesusā€™ Message

Jesusā€™ message was a kingdom message. Matthew tells us ā€˜Jesus, went throughout Galilee, teaching in their synagogues and proclaiming the gospel of the kingdomā€¦ā€™ (Mt.4:23, cf Lk.4:43) Remember, only ā€˜those apostles and a limited number of others to become kings and priests in heaven.ā€™

On the JW website, we read:

ā€˜Jesus said: ā€œUnless anyone is born again, he cannot see the Kingdom of God.ā€ (John 3:3) So being born again prepares a person to rule with Christ in Godā€™s Kingdom. This Kingdom rules from heaven, so the Bible describes the ā€œnew birthā€ as providing an inheritance that is ā€œreserved in the heavens.ā€ (1 Peter 1:3,4) Those who are born again are given the conviction that they will ā€œrule together as kingsā€ with Christ.ā€”2 Timothy 2:12;2 Corinthians 1:21,22.ā€™

Only those elect who are born again enter the kingdom, indeed Jesus tells Nicodemus only they can see the kingdom. So why was Jesus preaching the kingdom to the masses, why so determined to reach as many as possible with a message of a kingdom they can neither see nor enter?


Other Sheep?

The answer in the article is that these ā€˜other sheepā€™ contemplate their earthly hope,ā€™ even as they look on as the elect partake of the elements of the meal. Itā€™s like being invited to a party only to find yourself watching while others get to eat. Such an idea makes a nonsense of Paulā€™s words to Galatian believers:

ā€˜There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus.ā€™ (Gal.3:28)

Again, to Rome, Paul writes, ā€˜so we, though many, are one body in Christ, and individually members one of another.ā€™ (Rom.12:5) Note, access is so comprehensively available as to make none of the distinctions traditionally made, not even male and female. All may come, all are members of the one body.

When Jesus spoke of other sheep he was clear, ā€˜there will be one flock and one shepherd.ā€™ (Jn.10:16) It can further be said that the only distinction in the gospel of the kingdom is one between the sheep and the goats:

ā€˜Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate people from one another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats. And he will place the sheep on his right, but the goats on his left. Then the king will say to those on his right, ā€˜Come, you who are blessed by the father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world.ā€™ (Mt.25:31-34)


Diatheke or DiathĆ­somai?

The Society repeatedly crowbars its teaching into the Bible text, making words mean what they donā€™t, making people hear what they shouldn't, and misleading millions. Here is a classic example. Again, I am grateful to Bavesh Roger for the following and leave the last word to him:

The whole NT is a new covenant which I think most would agree, was promised in Jer.31 where the Greek word phrase kaine diatheke (LXX) means "new covenant" or "new testament." This word diatheke occurs 33 times in the NT indicating a proper covenant or will.

The NWT however, inserts the word "covenant" twice in Luke 22:29 for the Greek word diathĆ­somai which does not mean "making a covenant". NKJV renders this verse as "And I bestow upon you a kingdom, just as My Father bestowed upon Me", whereas NWT says "and I make a covenant with you, just as my Father has made a covenant with me, for a kingdom".

The Father did not make a covenant with Jesus and neither did Jesus make any "kingdom covenant" with the disciples. The Father simply "appointed" unto Jesus a kingdom (as rendered correctly in the old KJV) and Jesus does the same with the disciples.

The meaning of both these Greek words diatheke and diathisomai becomes more clear when they occur at the same time in Heb. 10:16 and Heb. 8:10 which say "This is the covenant (diatheke) that I will make (diathĆ­somai)...".

By incorrectly rendering diathĆ­somai as a proper covenant, the Watch Tower Society forces their own false interpretation based on the teachings of Rutherford regarding the great crowd of revelation which he called the "earthly class".

Comments

Michael Thomas saidā€¦
I just got the following helpful comment last night from my good friend Ben Harrison. Great insights coming in over this issue.

'I've read your recent article and it looks like you can draw a bigger distinction between the two words under the heading: "Diatheke or DiathĆ­somai?"

For, as you can see, these two words you've presented as having the same stem "diath", which would imply covenant.
However, to evade this implication, the Greek term is spelt more correctly diatithemai. Therefore pointing to a different stem altogether. Thus, undermining the NWT's use of covenant for diatithemai even more.

What we see is that the stem for "Diatheke" is "Diath". Whereas, the stem for "Diatithemai" is "Dia" . Dia has been translated into the English tongue as "via", meaning, quite simply, "through". Therefore, in no way do the two terms compute or have any form of epistomological, historical, contextual semantic crossover. In the history of translation, the NWT is the first and only translation to Ever render the term the way they have.'
Bavesh Roger saidā€¦
Yes that's correct and thanks for pointing that out. I should have corrected that the Greek in Luke 22:29 is "diatithemai" not "diathesomai". But also, in the list of word forms given in Strong's 1303, "diathesomai" is listed as one of forms for "diatithemai" which LXX uses for the Hebrew word "karath" for example in Hosea 2:18 whose primary meaning according to Strong's Hebrew 3772 is "to cut off or cut down, to make or to ordain", but does not in itself mean a proper covenant or will. "Diatheke" on the other hand used in the LXX for the Hebrew "Berith" which according to Thayer's does mean "a testament, will or covenant". Nevertheless, it is clear that the NWT is wrong.
Bavesh Roger saidā€¦
Yes that's correct and thanks for pointing that out. I should have corrected that the Greek in Luke 22:29 is "diatithemai" not "diathesomai". But also, in the list of word forms given in Strong's 1303, "diathesomai" is listed as one of forms for "diatithemai" which LXX uses for the Hebrew word "karath" for example in Hosea 2:18 whose primary meaning according to Strong's Hebrew 3772 is "to cut off or cut down, to make or to ordain", but does not in itself mean a proper covenant or will. "Diatheke" on the other hand used in the LXX for the Hebrew "Berith" which according to Thayer's does mean "a testament, will or covenant". Nevertheless, it is clear that the NWT is wrong.

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